• 07 JUN 19
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    You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:

    You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:

    a. chart the finding as paraphimosis.
    b. inquire about previous penile infections.
    c. retract the foreskin firmly.
    d. transilluminate the glans.

    Question 2

    While examining an 18-year-old man, you note that his penis and testicles are more darkly pigmented than the body skin. You should consider this finding to be:

    a. within normal limits.
    b. suggestive of a skin fungus.
    c. suggestive of psoriasis.
    d. caused by excessive progesterone.

    Question 3

    Which penile structure should be visible to inspection during the physical examination?

    a. Dorsal vein
    b. Proximal urethral
    c. Epididymis
    d. Corpus cavernosa

    Question 4

    Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles?

    a. Condyloma acuminatum
    b. Molluscum contagiosum
    c. Herpetic lesions
    d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

    Question 5

    The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is:

    a. hiatal.
    b. incarcerated femoral.
    c. indirect inguinal.
    d. umbilical.

    Question 6

    The movement of the testes by muscular action regulates:

    a. ejaculatory flow.
    b. sebaceous production.
    c. testicular temperature.
    d. urinary flow.

    Question 7

    Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?

    a. Circumcision
    b. Condyloma acuminatum
    c. Cryptorchidism
    d. Poor hygiene

    Question 8

    Which condition is a complication of mumps in the adolescent or adult?

    a. Cystitis
    b. Epididymitis
    c. Orchitis
    d. Paraphimosis

    Question 9

    Which of the following hernias occurs more often in females and has the lowest incidence of occurrence?

    a. Indirect
    b. direct
    c. femoral
    d. ventral

    Question 10

    The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is:

    a. testicular torsion.
    b. epididymitis.
    c. tumor.
    d. hydrocele.

    Question 11

    Which one of the following conditions is of minor consequence in an adult male?

    a. Adhesions of the foreskin
    b. Continuous penile erection
    c. Lumps in the scrotal skin
    d. Venous dilation in the spermatic cord

    Question 12

    The greatest contribution to the volume of ejaculate comes from the:

    a. prostate.
    b. epididymis.
    c. seminal vesicles.
    d. corpus cavernosa.

    Question 13

    Which type of hernia lies within the inguinal canal?

    a. Umbilical
    b. Direct
    c. Indirect
    d. Femoral

    Question 14

    Which technique is appropriate for detecting an inguinal hernia?

    a. Conduct percussion while the patient coughs.
    b. Have the patient strain as you pinch the testes.
    c. Inspect rectal areas as the patient bears down.
    d. Move your finger upward along the vas deferens.

    Question 15

    The most common cancer in young men aged 15 to 30 years is:

    a. testicular.
    b. penile.
    c. prostate.
    d. anal.

    Question 16

    Which structure of the male genitalia travels through the inguinal canal and unites with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct?

    a. Epididymis
    b. Prostate gland
    c. Testicles
    d. Vas deferens

    Question 17

    You palpate a soft, slightly tender mass in the right scrotum of an adult male. You attempt to reduce the size of the mass, and there is no change in the mass size. Your next assessment maneuver is to:

    a. use two fingers to attempt to reduce the mass.
    b. palpate the left scrotum simultaneously.
    c. lift the right testicle and then compare pain level.
    d. transilluminate the mass

    Question 18

    When examining a small child, in which position should he be placed to help push the testicles into the scrotum?

    a. Supine
    b. Tailor
    c. Standing
    d. Prone

    Question 19

    Which of the following is the most accurate approximation of normal adult testicular size (in centimeters)?

    a. 5 × 2 × 3
    b. 2 × 3 × 3
    c. 4 × 3 × 2
    d. 5 × 7 × 7

    Question 20

    The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:

    a. painful, inflamed testicles.
    b. deviation of the penis during erection.
    c. lack of sexual interest.
    d. painful lesions of the penis.

    Question 21

    The pelvic joint that separates most appreciably during late pregnancy is the:

    a. sacroiliac.
    b. symphysis pubis
    c. sacrococcygeal.
    d. iliofemoral.
    Question 22

    When collecting specimens, which sample should be obtained first?

    a. Chlamydia swab
    b. Gonococcal culture
    c. Pap smear
    d. Wet mount
    Question 23

    The vaginal discharge of a woman with a typical Trichomonas vaginalis infection is:

    a. homogeneous and gray with a low pH.
    b. scant and curdy with a low pH.
    c. profuse and frothy with a high pH.
    d. profuse and curdy with a low pH VERIFY

    Question 24

    The visualization of a large proportion of clue cells on your wet mount slide examination suggests:

    a. trichomonal infection.
    b. bacterial vaginosis.
    c. candidiasis.
    d. gonorrhea.
    Question 25

    The rectovaginal examination is an important component of the total pelvic examination because it:

    a. is the most direct cervical examination route.
    b. is a more comfortable examination for the posthysterectomy patient.
    c. is an alternate source for cytology specimens.
    d. allows the examiner to reach almost 2.5 cm higher into the pelvis.

    Question 26

    When you plan to obtain cytologic studies, speculum introduction may be facilitated by:

    a. lubrication with gel.
    b. lubrication with warm water.
    c. use of a plastic speculum.
    d. opening the blades completely.

    Question 27

    Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?

    a. Skene glands
    b. Clitoris
    c. Perineum
    d. Bartholin glands

    Question 28

    The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:

    a. pregnancy.
    b. nulliparity.
    c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
    d. vulvovaginitis.

    Question 29

    Which of the following findings indicates a possible gonococcal infection?

    a. Bulging of the anterior or posterior vaginal wall
    b. Discharge from urethra or Skene glands
    c. Irregular urethral orifice in midline
    d. Irregular vaginal edges at introitus

    Question 30

    The opening of the cervix is referred to as the:


    pouch of Douglas.


    cervical os.

    Question 31

    Which of the following is a normal component of vaginal discharge seen on a wet mount?

    a. Three to five white blood cells (WBCs)
    b. Clue cells
    c. Motile flagellates
    d. Spores and hyphae

    Question 32

    The presence of a fishy odor after adding potassium hydroxide to a wet mount slide containing vaginal mucus suggests:

    a. bacterial vaginosis.
    b. yeast infection.
    c. chlamydial infection.
    d. pregnancy.

    Question 33

    The vaginal mucosa of a woman of childbearing years should appear:

    a. smooth and pink.
    b. moist and excoriated.
    c. dry and papular.
    d. transversely rugated.

    Question 34

    Young women who are not sexually active should have their first pelvic examination:

    a. by age 15 years.
    b. by age 18 years.
    c. by age 21 years.
    d. only after they become sexually active.

    Question 35

    Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer?

    a. Endometriosis
    b. Low parity
    c. Multiple sex partners
    d. Obesity

    Question 36

    Which systemic feature is related to the effects of menopause?

    a. Increased abdominal fat distribution
    b. Decreased LDL levels
    c. Cold intolerance
    d. Decreased cholesterol levels

    Question 37

    What accommodations should be used for the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination?

    a. The patient should assume the M or V po-sition.
    b. Her legs should be farther apart.
    c. The head of the table should be elevated.
    d. The lithotomy position with obstetric stir-rups should be used.

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