. What is biodiversity?
A. The variety of genes within a species
B. The variety of species within an ecosystem
C. The variety of ecosystems on the planet
2. Which of the following best describes genetic diversity?
A. Variety of genes within an individual
B. Variety of genes within a population of a species
C. Variety of species within an ecosystem
3. Which of the following best describes ecosystem diversity?
A. Variety within an ecosystem
4. What leads to genetic diversity?
5. Biodiversity varies depending on location. Which of the following places has the greatest biodiversity?
6. Approximately how many unique species have been named and categorized?
7. The extinction rate of species from non-human related causes is about one species per 100 years. What is the approximate current rate of extinction, including human related cause
8. What is the overall greatest threat to biodiversity?
D. Over hunting and over harvesting
9. At what time scale is life able to adapt to environmental change?
B. Decades to centuries
C. Centuries to millennia
D. All of the above
10. Biodiversity is important for natural ecosystems, but how much impact does declining biodiversity really have on human life?
A. Declining biodiversity minimally affects humans.
B. The only impact to humans is a decrease in the health of natural areas and less wildlife for us to enjoy.
C. The only major impact is that as species go extinct, we will lose opportunities for discovering new, lifesaving drugs.
D. Human life depends on biodiversity.
11. Ecosystem services are an integral part of biodiversity. What is an ecosystem service?
A. A government program to help preserve biodiversity
B. A process within an ecosystem that provides a benefit to humans or the environment
C. A system for assessing the level of biodiversity of a given region
D. The repair and rehabilitation of an ecosystem
12. The following is an example of an ecosystem service:
A. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B. The cooling effect greenways have on an urban environment
C. Geographic information systems (GIS) and remote sensing
D. The process of clean up after an oil spill
13. What actions can an individual take to help preserve biodiversity?
A. Buy local produce
B. Drive and fly less
C. Use eco-friendly products
D. All of the above
14. What is a keystone species?
A. A species whose decline is an indicator of a bigger environmental problem
B. A species that is key to our understanding of biodiversity
C. A species whose impact on the ecosystem is proportionally larger than its abundance
D. A species that is more resilient to environmental disturbance than others are
15. What is an indicator species?
A. A species on the endangered species list
B. A species that is more resilient to environmental disturbance than others are
C. A species whose impact on the ecosystem is proportionally larger than its abundance
D. A species whose decline is an indicator of a bigger environmental problem
16. With respect to the scientific method , in the conclusion of an experiment, can you leave out experimental results that do no support your hypothesis?
A. No B. Yes
17. With respect to the scientific method , how many controls can you have in an experiment?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. As many as you would like
18. With respect to the scientific method ,how many independent variables can you have during an experiment?
A. 1 B. 2 C. As many as you would like D. The same amount as the number of controlled variables
19. With respect to the scientific method ,which of the following is not a requirements when creating a hypothesis for an experiment?
A. A hypothesis is based on knowledge and research.
B. A hypothesis is an idea about the solution to a problem.
C. A hypothesis is created after an experiment is completed.
D. A hypothesis should make a claim about how two factors are related.
20. What are the five steps of the scientific method in order from first to last?
A. Research, problem, hypothesis, project experimentation, conclusion
B. Research, problem, project experimentation, conclusion, hypothesis
C. Research, problem, project experimentation, hypothesis, conclusion
21. The scientific method is a process for experimentation that is used to explore observations and answer questions. What is the first step in completing the scientific method?
A. Project experimentation B. Hypothesis C. Problem D. Research
22. The second step to the scientific method is to state the “problem”, the scientific question to be solved. What is one requirement that needs to be fulfilled in order for the “problem” to be valid?
A. It needs to be a problem that has a number answer. B. It needs to be a problem that can be solved experimentally.
C. It needs to be a problem that has a yes or no answer.
23 A pattern or relationship that has been established based on a large amount of experimental data is A.
A. Theory
B. Hypothesis
C. Law
24. If the results of an experiment turn out differently from what you expected, then:
A. The experiment was a failure.
B. You should explore the possible reasons for this in the ‘conclusions’ section of your experimental write-up.
C. You need to redo your experiment until you get the expected result.
D. You didn’t follow the scientific method.
25. Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?
A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Endocytosis
D. Facilitated diffusion
26. Chamber A contains 40% helium and Chamber B contains 20% helium. Chambers are connected by a tube the molecules are free to cross. Which of the following will occur?
A. Some helium will move from chamber A to chamber B
B. Some helium will move from chamber B to chamber A
C. Helium will remain concentrated in chamber A
D. All of the helium will move into chamber B
27. What will happen to an animal cell placed in a salt water solution?
A. The cell will shrink
B. The cell will expand
C. The cell will burst
D. The cell will shrink and then expand and then shrink again
28. An animal cell placed in a hypotonic solution will:
A. Die
B. Take on water
C. Lose water
D. Divide
29. Which of the following is a type of active transport?
A. Sodium potassium pump
B. Endocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. All of these
30. Active transport requires:
A. A concentration gradient
B. Osmosis
C. Energy
D. A hypertonic solution
31. The scientific discipline that investigates the body’s structure and shape is calleD.
A. Anatomy.
B. Embryology.
C. Endocrinology.
D. Histology.
E. Physiology.
32. Select the correct statement concerning the tissue level.
A. Tissues consist of groups of similar cells that have a common function.
B. The four basic tissue types (epithelial, connective, muscular, and neural) play a definite but different role in the body.
C. Two or more tissue types that performs a specific function for the body constitutes an organ
D. All of the above
33. The sum of all chemical reactions in the body is termed.
A. Homeostasis
B. Physiology
C. Dynamic feedback
D. Metabolism
34. A structure composed of two or more tissues is termed.
A. Organ
B. Serous membrane
C. Complex tissue
D. Organ system
35. The “basic unit of life” is:
A. The atom
B. Water
C. The cell
D. The chemical level of organization
36 . A group of cells of the same type form a(n):
A. Organ.
B. Organism.
C. Atom.
D. Tissue.
E. Organ system.
37. Which of the following best illustrates the increasing levels of complexity?
(1) Cells; (2) Organs; (3) Organelles; (4) Organism; (5) Tissues; (6) Organ systems
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1, 6.
C. 4, 3, 5, 6, 1, 2.
D. 3, 1, 5, 2, 6, 4.
E. 1, 5, 3, 2, 6, 4.
38. Which of the statements below is untrue with respect to organ systems?
A. They can share organs with other systems.
B. They function together to ensure wellness of the organism.
C. They act independently of each other.
D. They are groups of organs with a common function.
39. Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function?
A. Maintaining boundaries.
B. Movement.
C. Thinking.
D. Responsiveness.
E. Reproduction.
40. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used
A. To produce large numbers of identical DNA segments called gene probes.
B. Increase the amount of DNA to be searched in DNA sequencing procedures
C In water-quality tests
D. In HIV and HPV detection
E. To identify even poorly growing bacterial cultures
F. In all of the above
41 Which of the statements below are false with respect to gene probe technology?
A. Since first introduced in the 1970s, gene probe tests have been met only with periods of unbridled enthusiasm.
B.The ViraPap test is a commercially available gene probe test for detecting human papilloma virus (HPV), the virus that causes genital warts.
C. A similar technique can be used to conduct water-quality tests based on the detection of coliform bacteria such as E. coli
D. gene probes and PCR have been useful is in the detection of human immunodeficiency virus (H1V).
E. None of the above
42. When gene probe analysis becomes more widely accepted it will allow the identification of
A. Salmonella,
B. Shigella
C. Vibrio .
D. All of the above
43. Gene probe technology
A Is described as “exquisitely accurate”
B. Have a high degree of discrimination and reliability as strong as older identification methods.
C Allows one to get a result in a few short hours instead of many days
D. Is extremely sensitive
E. All of the above
44. Gene probe assays are widely available in kit forms for a variety of bacterial species except
A. Staphylococci
B. Haemophilus
C. Listeria
D Mycobacterium, and Neisseria
E Fungi (such as Blastomyces, Coccidioides, and Histoplasma).
45. The future value of gene probes will depend in part on
A. The development of ways to minimize false-positive reactions due to contamination
B. Methods of increasing the sensitivity of tests
C. On mechanisms for enhancing the signals from probes bound to their target molecules.
D. All of the above
E A & C only
`
46. With respect to interpreting BLAST search results, when you do a BLAST search BLAST will come back with a result, that includes
A. The reference of the search program
B. The number of letters in your sequence C. The number of letters in the database D. A graphic representation of the sequence matches E. A list of matches sorted with the best matching sequences shown first F. All of the above
G. A, C & E only
47. In interpreting BLAST results select the answer below that is false.
A. If BLAST returns an E-value that is very small or close to zero, then you probably have a meaningful match that is not due to random chance. B. Since each match therefore contains 2 bits of information (and only 1 is correct out of 4 possibles), then the higher the score, the better is the match.
C. To interpret the matches, you therefore need to pay attention to whether the E-value is reasonably small
D. Two or more sequences may match extremely well but appear to belong to completely different species. E. None of the above
48. The process by which energy is obtained directly from sunlight and stored in organic compounds is called…
A. Transpiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Accessory pigmentation
D. Respiration
E. Crassulacean acid metabolism
49. Organisms that manufacture their own food from inorganic substances and energy (photosynthesize and/or chemosythesize) are called…
A. Heterotrophs
B. Protists
C. Tertiary consumers
D. Autotrophs
E. Fungi
50 All living things *indirectly* get their food from…
A. Photosynthesis
B. Particle spin
C. Only chemosynthesis
D. Pigments
E. Water
51. What kinds of organisms perform cellular respiration?
A. Animals only
B. Plants only
C. All of them
D. Crustaceans only
52. The initial reactions in photosynthesis are known collectively as…
A. Thylakenisis
B. The light reactions
C. The Muller-Cooper reactions
D. The dark reactions
E. The Calvin pathway
53. The (blanks) of photosynthesis are the (blanks) of cellular respiration.
A. Pigments, products
B. Electrons, protons
C. Nucleotides, nitrogen bases
D. Products, reactants
E. Reactants, products
53. An orange carrot…
A. Refracts yellow light
B. Reflects all wavelengths of light except orange
C. Transmits blue and green light
D. Absorbs all wavelengths of light except orange
E. Absorbs violet light, but reflects red and green light
54. Photophosphorylation involves ATP
A. Production during the light reaction of photosynthesis
B. Breakdown during the light reaction of photosynthesis
C. Formation during the dark reaction of photosynthesis
D. Breakdown during the dark reaction of photosynthesis
55. The net equation for photosynthesis produces
A. Water and carbon dioxide
B. Water and oxygen
C. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
D. Carbohydrate and oxygen
56. As far as the light reaction of photosynthesis is concerned, what is the role of oxygen?
A. It is a necessary reactant.
B. It is a waste product.
C. It is a product that is then utilized in the dark reaction.
D. It is not involved as a product or a reactant.
57. The essential initial role of light in initiating the light reaction of photosynthesis is to produce
A. Free neutrons
B. Free electrons
C. Free oxygen
D. ATP
58. True or False question
The proper way to focus a microscope is to start with the highest power objective (100X) first.
A. True
B. False
59. Resolving power is the ability to discern two objects as being distinct objects.
A. True
B. False
60. Which of the Statements below is false? A. Resolving power is also influenced by the NA of the objective. B. The air space between the slide and lens can be replaced by a drop of immersion oil which has a different refractive index than air. C. The use of oil immersion is an absolute necessity when using the 40X objective. D. When using the 40X and 100X objectives, only use the fine focus.
61. During which stage of mitosis is the nuclear membrane broken into fragments? A. Metaphase B. Early Prophase C. Anaphase D. Late Prophase 62. Equatorial plate of the mitotic spindle is formed during the _______. A. Anaphase B. Metaphase C. Late prophase D. Early prophase
63. Mitotic cell division is initiated in the _______. A. Centromere B. Centriole C. Mucleus D. Mitotic spindle 64. During which stage of mitosis do nucleoli reappear? A. Anaphase B. Early Prophase C. Telophase D. Late Prophase 65. The number of chromosomes in a human cell is _______. A. 2 B. 4 C. 23 D. 46 66. The resting stage of the cell is known as the _______. A. Interphase B. Telophase C. Anaphase D. Prophase 67. During which stage of mitosis do chromatids separate to form two sets of daughter chromosomes? A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Prophase D. Interphase 68. Genetic information is transferred from parent to daughter cells through the _______. A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Centrioles D. Nucleus 69. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below? A. Metaphase B. Telophase C. Anaphase D. Prophase 70. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?
A. Metaphase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. Prophase
71. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below? A. Anaphase B. Metaphase C. Prophase D. Telophase 72. Which of the following is the longest stage of mitosis? A. Telophase B. Metaphase C. Prophase D. Anaphase 73. During which stage of mitosis does longitudinal splitting of the chromosomes occur? A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. Metaphase
74. The interphase and mitosis together constitute the cell cycle. A. True B. False 75. The nuclear membrane is formed around the newly-formed sets of daughter chromosomes during the telophase. A. True B. False 76. During mitosis, loosely arranged strands of chromosomes become coiled, shortened and distinct during the metaphase. A. True B. False
77. Mendel’s second principle states that the inheritance of one characteristic will not affect the inheritance of another characteristic. What is the principle calleda
78. Which statement describes how two organisms may show the same trait, yet have different genotypes for that phenotype?
A. One is homozygous dominant and the other is heterozygou
B. One is homozygous dominant and the other is homozygous recessive.
C. Both are heterozygous for the dominant trait
D. Both are homozygous for the dominant trait.
79. Sexual reproduction contributes to
A. Less genetic variation within a population.
B. More identical genotypes within a population.
C. Greater genetic variation within a population.
D. Greater mutation rate within a population.
80. Which of the following genotypes has the potential for the greatest genetic variation in the offspring?
Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous recessive.
Heterozygous crossed with homozygous recessive.
Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous dominant.
Heterozygous crossed with another heterozygous individual.
81. In pea plants, yellow pea pods are dominant to green pea pods and round-shaped pods are dominant to wrinkled pods. How do the offspring of two plants that are heterozygous for yellow, round pods result in four different phenotypes? Is it the result of
A. Random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis.
B. Random fertilization during sexual reproduction.
C. Crossing over between chromosomes during meiosis.
D. Mutation in the DNA of the gametes.
82. In pea plants, yellow is a dominant trait and green is a recessive trait. In a genetic cross of two plants that are heterozygous for the pea color trait, what percent of the offspring should have yellow peas?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%
83. Advantages to using the garden pea for Mendel’s experiments included all listed below except
A. True-breeding varieties were scarce.
B. He could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offspring.
C. They have relatively short generation time.
D. Sex organs of the pea are enclosed within the flower.
84. Pea plants can
A. Self-pollinate, but are not self-compatible
B. Self-fertilize
C. Only cross-fertilize
D. Reproduce without pollination
85. When Mendel crossed pure-breeding purple and white flowered pea plants, the dominant to recessive ratio in the F1generation was
A. 3:1
B. 4:0
C. 4:1
D. 4:0
E. 9:3:3:1
86. On which of the following chromosomes are sex-linked traits carried?
A. 13
B. 18
C. Y
D.15
E. X
87. The genotype of an individual with Turner syndrome is
A. YO
B. XXY
C. XYY
D. XO
88. In Mendel’s F2 generation, one out of four plants had white flowers because
A. The trait is sex-linked
B. Both parents were heterozygous purple
C. One parent was homozygous recessive
D. Both parents were heterozygous white
89. In Mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to recessive ratio was
A. 1:3:1
B. 3:1
C. 1:1
D. 9:7
E. 9:3:3:1
90. The appearance resulting from a given gene combination is referred to as the
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Phototype
E. Stereotype
91. A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be
A. Homozygous
B. Heteromologous
C. Homologous
D. Heterozygous
E. Diplozygous
92. Which of the following represents a dihybrid?
A. WWSs
B. WwSS
C. WwSs
D. WWss
E. wwSs
93.Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the genotype of a heterozygous individual would be expressed
A. sS
B. ss
C. SS
D. Ss
E. tall
94. The two alternatives for a trait are red and white and red is dominant. However, white is the most common trait. What is the genotype of a homozygous dominant individual?
A. RR
B. rr
C. WW
D. ww
E. red
95. In garden peas, height is determined by a single gene with tall being dominate to short. If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what proportion of the tall progeny will be homozygous dominant?
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
E. 1/4
96. The model for the dihybrid cross of heterozygotes predicts a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.
A. True
B. False
97. A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree that shows affected individuals having at least one affected parent.
A) True
B) False
98 One gene can have multiple effects on an organism.
A. True
B. False
99. Down syndrome results from:
A. The absence of one chromosome in position 21
B. The presence of an extra chromosome in position 21
C. The absence of both chromosomes in position 21
D. Crossing over on the chromosomes in position 21
E. None of the above
100. Which of the following is not a result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes?
A. Down syndrome
B. Barr body
C. Turner syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome